PMP exam questions 2018

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1.Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
a. Estimate Costs
b. Control Costs
c. Determine Budget
d. Plan Cost Management
faulse
2.When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an ?
a. Improvement
b. Program
c. Result
d. Portfolio

3.Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process ?
a. Budget estimates
b. Risk matrix
c. Requirements documentation
d. Procurement documents
true
4.When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities ?
a. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected
b. The technology to be used is cutting-edge
c. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment
d. The product is needed in 250 days.
true
5. An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an?
a. Business Case
b. Activity list
c. Project management plan
d. Cost forecast
true-Intrgration
6. Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
a. Work performance reports
b. Assumptions logs
c. Network diagrams
d. Academic studies
false
7. Which element does a project charter contain?
a. Management reserves
b. Work breakdown structure
c. Stakeholder list
d. Stakeholder register
true
8.The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones?
a. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process
b. Occur at random times in the project plans
c. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event
d. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate
true
9.Which of the following is an example of contract administration ?
a. Negotiating the contract
b. Authorizing contractor work
c. Developing the statement of work
d. Establishing evaluation criteria
false
10.Which item is an example of personnel assessment ?
a. Resource calendar
b. Tight matrix
c. Team-building activity
d. Focus group
false
11.What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution ?
a. Integrating all planned activities
b. Performing the activities included in the plan
c. Developing and maintaining the plan
d. Execution of deliverables
false
12.The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
a. Appetite
b. Tolerance
c. Threshold
d. Management
true-Risk
13.Identify Risks is part of which Process Group ?
a. Planning
b. Executing
c. Closing
d. Initiating
true
14.A project can be defined as a:
a. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
b. Temporary endeavor that products repetitive outputs
c. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
d. Permanent endeavor that products repetitive outputs
true
15.What is the probability of occurance if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high(0.80) ?
a. 0.45
b. 0.56
c. 0.70
d. 1.36
false
16.Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:
a. Tangible
b.Targeted
c. Organized
d. Variable
false
17.Who selects the appropriate processes for a project ?
a. Project stakeholder
b. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
c. Project manager and project team
d. Project manager and project sponsor

18.In which process group is the scope first defined ?
a. Initiating
b. Planning
c. Executing
d. Controlling
false
19.Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as ?
a. Organization skills
b. Technical skill
c. Communication skills
d. Hard skills
false
20.Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process ?
a. Acquisition
b. Organizational theories
c. Team-building activities
d. Virtual teams

21.Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process ?
a. Project calendar
b. Communications management plan
c. Organizational process assets updates
d. Project document updates
false
22.Who is responsible for initiating a project ?
a. Project sponsor
b. Project manager
c. Program manger
d. Project management office (PMO)

23.The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication ?
a. Push
b. Pull
c. Interactive
d. Iterative

24.When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities ?
a. Authority
b. Role
c. Competency
d. Resoibsibility

false-Human resource

25.Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
 a. Teaming
 b. Collective bargaining
 c. Sharing
 d. Working


false-Procurement

26.Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process ?
 a. Brainstorming
 b. Strategies for opportunities
 c. Decision tree analysis
 d. Risk data quality assessment

false-Risk

27.Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process ?
 a. Performance report
 b. Work breakdown structure
 c. Requested changes
 d. Project scope statement

true-Scope

28.Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
 a. Monitor and Control Risks
 b. Plan Risk Management
 c. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
 d. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

true-Risk

29.In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
 a. Project Cost Management
 b. Project Scope Management
 c. Project Time Management
 d. Project Integration Management

true-Integration

30. Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process ?
 a. Activity list
 b. Project Plan
 c. Activity duration estimates
 d. Project schedule

true-Time

31. The stakeholder register is an output of ?
 a. Identify Stakeholders
 b. Plan Stakeholder Management
 c. Control Stakeholder Engagement
 d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement

true-Risk

32. Risk exists the moment that a project is ?
 a. Planned
 b. Conceived
 c. Chartered
 d. Executed

false-Risk

 33. The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
 a. Alternatives identification
 b. Scope decomposition
 c. Expert judgment
 d. Product analysis

false-Scope

 34. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?
 a. Project
 b. Scope
 c. Contract
 d. Program

true
35. Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
 a. Qualitative risk analysis
 b. Quantitative risk analysis
 c. Risk management planing
 d. Risk response planing

true-risk
36. What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk register?
 a. Risk register
 b. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
 c. Risk management plan
 d. Risk category

false-Risk
37. Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contract?
 a. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
 b. Firm-Fixed-Price Contract (FFP)
 c. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
 d. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

false-Procurement
38. In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
 a. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
 b. Fixed Price with Ecomonic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA)
 c. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
 d. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

true-Procurement
39. An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
 a. Manage Project Team
 b. Acquire Project Team
 c. Plan Human Resource Management
 d. Develop Project Team

false-Human resource
40. What are the components of the "triple constrain"?
 a. Scope, Time, Requirements
 b. Resources, time, cost
 c. Scope, management, cost
 d. Scope, time, cost

true
41. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
 a. Networking
 b. Training
 c. Negotiation
 d. Issue log

true-Human resource
42. Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcome?
 a. Time series
 b. Judgmental
 c. Econometric
 d. Simulation

true
43. Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
 a. Requirements tractability matrix
 b. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
 c. Requirements management plan
 d. Requirements document

true-Scope
44. An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is?
 a. Change requests
 b. Enterprise environment factors
 c. The stakeholder management plan
 d. The change log

false-Stakeholder
45. Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments the make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of?
 a. Influencing
 b. Leadership
 c. Motivation
 d. Coaching

false
46. What characteristic do project and operational work share in common"?
 a. Performed by systems
 b. Constrained by limited resources
 c. Repetitiveness
 d. Uniqueness

false
47. The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as?
 a. Exploit
 b. Avoid
 c. Mitigate
 d. Share

false-Risk
48. Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
 a. Project manager information system
 b. Expert judgement
 c. Change control meeting
 d. Brainstorming
Commercial database and company structure
 d. Existing human resources and market place conditions


49. Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
 a. Project manager information system
 b. Expert judgement
 c. Change control meeting
 d. Brainstorming
Commercial database and company structure
 d. Existing human resources and market place conditions


50. Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization"?
 a. WBS
 b. CPI
 c. OBS
 d. BOM


51. What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management"?
 a. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objective
 b. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place
 c. Increase the probability and impact of positive events
 d. Removal of project risk


52. What process determines which risks might affect the project?
 a. Qualitative risk analysis
 b. Identify Risks
 c. Plan Risk Management
 d. Quantiatative risk analysis

true-Risk
53. Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
 a. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholder
 b. Conduct risk management activities for a project
 c. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project
 d. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project

true-Risk
54. The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process
 a. Sequence Activities
 b. Estimate Activity Resources
 c. Develop Schedule
 d. Control Schedule

false
55. Which standard has interrelationships to other project management discipline such as?
 a. Program management of body knowledge
 b. Resources, time, cost
 c. Scope, management, cost
 d. Scope, time, cost


56. What are the components of the "triple constrain"?
 a. Scope, Time, Requirements
 b. Resources, time, cost
 c. Scope, management, cost
 d. Scope, time, cost


57. Which input to the Identify Stakeholder process provides information about internal or external parties related to this project"?
 a. Procurement document
 b. Communications plan
 c. Project charter
 d. Stakeholder register


58. Which is an output of the Collect Requirement process?
 a. Requirements tractability matrix
 b. Project scope statement
 c. WBS dictionary
 d. Work performance measurements


59. Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
 a. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
 b. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
 c. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
 d. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Managemen


60. The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
 a. Manage the timely completion of the project
 b. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required
 c. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.
 d. Reduce the risk of negative events in the product


61. Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
 a. Project Risk Management
 b. Project Human Resource Management
 c. Project Scope management
 d. Project Stakeholder Management


62. Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
 a. Benefit
 b. Initiation
 c. Objective
 d. Process


63. Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders needs and requirements and:
 a. Available organizational assets
 b. Project staff assignments
 c. Interpersonal skills
 d. Enterprise environmental factors


64. Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
 a. Ishikawa
 b. Milestone
 c. Influence
 d. Decision tree


65. A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
 a. change control tools
 b. expert judgment
 c. meeting
 d. analytical techniques


66. PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes?
 a. product-oriented processes.
 b. project management process.
 c. product-oriented and project management processes.
 d. program management and project management processes


67. Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
 a. Risk register
 b. Risk data quality assessment
 c. Risk categorization
 d. Risk urgency


68. Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
 a. feasibility study, concept development , design, and prototype
 b. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor
 c. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance
 d. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test


69. An element of the project scope statement is:
 a. Acceptance criteria
 b. A stakeholder list
 c. A summary budget
 d. High-level risks


70. Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
 a. Control Quality
 b. Monitor and Control Project Work
 c. Control scope
 d. Perform Integrated Change Control


71. What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
 a. Scope, Time, Requirements
 b. Resources, time, cost
 c. Scope, management, cost
 d. Scope, time, cost


72. What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resource typ?
 a. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
 b. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
 c. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
 d. Project breakdown structure (PBS)


73. The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
 a. recognition and rewards
 b. compliance
 c. scaff acquisition
 d. training needs


74. Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them ?
 a. Requirements documentation
 b. Requirements traceability matrix
 c. Project management plan updates
 d. Project document updates


75. Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in decision tree
 a. Uniform
 b. Continuous
 c. Discrete
 d. Linear


76. Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders needs and requirements to meet project objective?
 a. Collect Requirements
 b. Plan Scope Management
 c. Define Scope
 d. Define Activities


77. What is the definition of project plan execution?
 a. Integrating all planned activities
 b. Performing the activities included in the plan
 c. Developing and maintainning the plan
 d. Execution of deliverables


78. Organizations perceive risks as:
 a. events that will inevitably impact and organizational objectives
 b. the effect of uncertainty on their and organizational objectives
 c. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives
 d. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives


79. Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
 a. Recognized by every project manager
 b. Constantly evolving
 c. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
 d. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project


80. Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project"?
 a. Initiating
 b. Planning
 c. Executing
 d. Closing

81. The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:
 a. Supportive
 b. Leading
 c. Neutral
 d. Resistant


82. Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
 a. Acceptance of the work deliverables
 b. Accuracy of the work deliverables
 c. Approval of the scope statement
 d. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure


83. The diagram below is an example of a:
 a. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
 b. Project team
 c. SWOT Analysis
 d. Work breakdown structure (WBS)


84. Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented ?
 a. Customers
 b. Project sponsors
 c. Project management team
 d. Insurance claims department


85. The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
 a. Define Scope
 b. Develop Project Management Plan
 c. Plan Scope Management
 d. Plan Quality Management


86. A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
 a. Plan contracting
 b. Requesting seller responses
 c. Selecting sellers's
 d. Planning purchase and acquisition


87. Where are product requirements and characteristics documented ?
 a. Product scope description
 b. Project charter
 c. Preliminary project scope statement
 d. Communications management plan


88. One of the objectives of a quality audit is to
 a. highlight the need for root cause analysis
 b. share the process documentation among stakeholders
 c. offer assistance with non-value-added activities
 d. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings


89. Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
 a. Oraganizational process assets
 b. Resources avalibility
 c. Perform Integrated Change Control
 d. Team performance assessment


90. Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
 a. Risk register
 b. Risk audits
 c. Risk urgency assessment
 d. Risk probability and impact assessment


91. The product scope description is used to:
 a. Gain stakeholders' support for the project
 b. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product service, or result
 c. Describe the project in great detail
 d. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result


92. What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?
 a. Project management office
 b. Project team office
 c. Executive sponsor office
 d. Program management office


93. Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
 a. Marketplace conditions
 b. Policies and procedures
 c. Project files from previous projects
 d. Lessons learned from previous projects


94. Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
 a. portfolio
 b. program
 c. selection
 d. sub portfolio


95. The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
 a. negotiation
 b. organizational theory
 c. meeting
 d. networking


96. The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:
 a. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit
 b. Develop a risk register for risk planning
 c. Evaluate each risk's importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
 d. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis


97. Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess to assess the priority of identified risks?
 a. Risk identification
 b. Qualitative risk analysis
 c. Risk management planning
 d. Quantitative risk analysis


98. Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, cause, and objectives?
 a. Affinity
 b. Scatter
 c. Fishbone
 d. Matrix

false
99. Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
 a. Flowcharting
 b. Earned value
 c. Cost-benefit analysis
 d. Pareto analysis


100. A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
 a. a Knowledge Area
 b. a Process Group
 c. program management
 d. portfolio management